AGILE MCQ Question Answer

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1.Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding daily stand-up meeting?

a)Product Owner must be present in every meeting
b)It is conducted daily, but time keeps on changing frequently as per teams availability
c)It is conducted every day at the same time where all team members update what they did yesterday, plan for today and mention any road blocks.
d)None of the above

Ans: C

2.Sprint Burndown Chart helps the Agile Projects for

a)Tracking project progress on a daily basis
b)Quick reference for Team to know , if any issue to achieve Sprint goal
c)Plotted for remaining effort against the days of the sprint
d)All of the above

Ans: D

3.Product backlog is owned and maintained by

a)Team
b)Product Owner
c)Scrum Master
d)Project Manager

Ans: B

4.Which of the following statement(s) are CORRECT about Continuous Integration(CI)?

a)Code needs to be frequently checked in
b)Automated builds facilitate CI
c)CI helps to identify integration defects in the early stages of the project
d)All of the above

Ans: D

5.Test Driven Development and Unit Testing are similar practices in different names.

ANS – False

6.Which of the following options is the effective way of conducting Daily Stand-up meeting for the teams distributed in different geographic locations?

a)Leverage time zone difference in the most effective way and accepted by the team
b)Plan the meeting at a time which is feasible for key members of the team
c)Plan the meeting at a time which is feasible for Product Owner
d)Leverage the time zone difference in the most effective way and accepted by Product Owner

Ans: A

7.Which of the following is NOT an important practice for execution of Agile projects in distributed environment?

a)Effective usage of communication and collaborationplatforms
b)Building up trust among team members with frequent meetings
c)Active participation of team members across locations in daily stand up, review and
retrospective meetings
d)None of the above

Ans: D

8.In cases where Product Owner (PO) and development team do not have any time overlap, which is the BEST way to conduct Sprint Planning meeting?

a)Team should complete Sprint Planning meeting and update Product Owner offline
b)Team should do certain activities, like analysis, in advance before the actual Sprint Planning meeting with PO
c)Team should ask Product Owner to do complete Sprint Planning without them and pass on the details to them offline
d)Team should not wait for any planning and must start with Sprint

Ans: B

9.At which stage of the project is it recommended for the teams to co-locate?

a)During Initiation stage of the project
b)In the middle of Release execution
c)During Release Sprint ( before the final shipment of deliverables)
d)Post Release

Ans: A

10.The advantage of deploying ALM (Application Lifecycle Management) tool in distributed team environment is

a)Provides Visibility and Traceability of entire project
b)Manages Reports (tracking project status and Burndown charts)
c)Manages Project artifacts
d)All of the above

Ans: D

11.In ‘InfyAgile Global’ projects, Release Planning is associated with

a)Verification of customer requirements
b)Identification of corrective actions
c)Establishing estimates
d)Definition of the technical solution

Ans: C

12.Continuous Integration and Continuous Testing does not support which of the following CMMI process area

a)Configuration Management
b)Product Integration
c)Technical Solution
d)Verification and Validation

Ans: C

13.Objective of ‘Quantitative Project management practice’ in ‘InfyAgile Global’ projects is to:

a)Obtain the predictability of project performance
b)Provide status update to the Product Owner
c)Get the team velocity
d)Track changes received in Product Backlog

Ans: A

14.Problem and defect prevention, and identification of action items for improvement are recommended to be done during

a)Sprint Planning Meeting
b)Sprint Execution
c)Sprint Review Meeting
d)Sprint Retrospective Meeting

Ans: D

15.Which one of the following CMMI process areas is addressed when requirements are traceable and consistent through mechanisms of Product Backlog and User Stories?

a)Requirements Development
b)Requirements Management
c)Risk Management
d)Configuration Management

Ans: B

16.One of the Cs in 3 ‘C’ Method represents:

a)Communication
b)Collaboration
c)Customer First
d)Conversation

Ans: D

17.For Epic, which is the most CORRECT definition?

a)Epics are stories that can be done in Sprint
b)Epics are large stories to be kept at the bottom of Product Backlog
c)Epics are large requirements broken down in smaller stories
d)Epics are created as and when Sprint execution happens

Ans: C

18.Product Backlog is:

a)Ordered (Prioritized) list of stories, defects, other work items committed for Sprints
b)List of all stories, epics, tasks required for product/project
c)List of defects in the product
d)Ordered (Prioritized) list of tasks for the Sprint

Ans: A

19.The third ‘C’ of the 3C method, ‘Confirmation’ represents

a)Written confirmation from customer
b)Team confirmation
c)Acceptance Tests
d)Confirmed Requirements

Ans: C

20.Sprint Backlog is:

a)Subset of product backlog in no particular order
b)Forecasted (committed) list of Product Backlog for the Sprint
c)List ofepics and user stories for the project
d)Ordered (Prioritized) list of work to be carried out in projects

Ans: B

21.Which of the following is NOT maintained as part of design in Agile?

a)System architecture diagram
b)Component diagram
c)Detailed design document with pseudo code
d)Deployment document

Ans: C

22.Code Refactoring is done to

a)Remove duplication and unused code
b)Change code structure to make it modular and simpler
c)Increase reuse
d)All of the above

Ans: D

23.If a method returns a collection, as part of encapsulation collection refactoring technique, it is recommended to make the method return read-only view and provide add/remove methods. This statement is

ANS – TRUE

24.An interface between high-level and low-level classes is implemented using

a)Dependency Inversion principle
b)Interface Segregation Principle
c)Liskov Substitution Principle
d)Single Responsibility Principle

Ans: A

25.Which of the following is NOT an essential element of Continuous Integration?

a)Automated Build
b)Frequent Check-in
c)Disciplined Culture
d)Database Structure

Ans: D

26.Robinisthe Scrum Master of an Agile Team, working on a critical project with stringent timelines. He has observed that his team is spending significant time in fixing defects found at
the end of the Sprint. Which of the following practice should Robin ask the team to adopt?

a)Ensure open defects are discussed in detail in daily standup meetings
b)Engage a separate testing team for release Sprints
c)Check-in code daily, as a practice, perform local build frequently before integrating changes to server and run smoke test
d)Use advanced tools for defect tracking

Ans: C

27.Is Continuous Delivery and Continuous Deployment are same concept in two different name.

ANS – No, there is a difference between these two the way deployment is done

28. How does Continuous Delivery complement Continuous Integration in terms of faster Delivery?

A. Deploying the working software in the right environment so that it can be accessed by end-user
B. Providing the logical conclusion of the development being done
C. Faster feedback cycle
D. All of the above

Ans: D

29.Which of the following tools can be used for the deployment of a Continuous Integration Server?

a)Jenkins
b)Maven
c)Selenium
d)HP Load Runner

Ans: A

30.Choose the option(s) that is/are relevant to Test Driven Development.

a)Failing tests
b)Refactoring
c)Enough code to make tests pass
d)All of the above

Ans: D

31.TDD can be used for requirements which are not stated clearly.

ANS – FALSE

32.Which of the following is INCORRECT with respect to TDD?

a)Write test case that will fail
b)Arrive at an upfront design and freeze it before starting TDD
c)Write enough code to make tests pass
d)Use refactoring principles to make the code clean

Ans: B

33.What is the correct sequence for TDD from the below options?

a)Write Test –> Develop Code –> RunTest –> Refactor Code
b)Write Test –> Develop Code –> Refactor Code –> RunTest
c)Write Test –> RunTest –> Develop Code –> Refactor Code
d)Write Test –> RunTest –> Refactor Code –> Develop Code

Ans: C

34.Which of these option(s) is/are TRUE regarding TDD?

a)Enables writing ‘clean code’ which is fully tested
b)Helps avoid speculative coding
c)Helps in defect reduction and high quality code generation
d)All of the above

Ans: D

35.Which of the following is the BEST mechanism for effective Collaboration and Communication between teams and Product Owner?

a)Project monitoring and tracking
b)Identifying action items for tasks
c)Face-to-Face interaction
d)Implementation of review comments

Ans: C

36.Which of the following techniques is BEST to collaborate between client and distributed teams while demonstrating new features?

a)Email
b)Screen sharing
c)Both (a) and (b)
d)None of the above

Ans: B

37.Which of the following facilitates good communication?

a)Use live or real-time communication channels
b)Use available tools like instant messaging, video/voice conference
c)Not wait for a planned meeting till end of the day
d)All of the above

Ans: D

38.Workshop is an event where

a)A group of people collaborate for gathering, understanding and prioritizing
requirements
b)Team members update each other about the progress
c)Status update is provided to the Product Owner
d)Team identifies tasks for user stories during the current Sprint execution

Ans: A

39.Sprint Reviews are an effective way to

a)Share information and improve communication with all stakeholders
b)Inspect and adopt what has been developed in the current Sprint and collaborate on
what needs to be done next
c)Notify the Product Owner with overall status of the project
d)All of the above

Ans: D

40.How is planning done for Agile Projects?

a)Only by Product Owner based on his judgment
b)Scrum Master and Product Owner together take decisions
c)Project Manager consult the Scrum Master for planning
d)Planning is done in a collaborative way involving the entire Team

Ans: D

41.Which of the following statements is FALSE about Agile Planning?

a)The initial plans are revisited during the project execution
b)Project high level planning is recommended by Infosys Global Agile
c)Agile practices need not be planned upfront
d)None of the above

Ans: C

42.Infrastructure Planning for Agile is needed only when projects are executed in distributed environment.

ANS – FALSE

43.Which of the following statements is TRUE about Quality Management Planning?

a)It is intended to define and measure project goals
b)It is done at Project, Release and Sprint level
c)Both a & b
d)None

Ans: C

44.Why is Sprint 0 important in package context?

A. To know about the dependency in the modules
B. To understand roles and responsibilities in case of multi-vendor context
C. Fitgap Analysis
D. All of the above

Ans: D

45.Among the following roles, who is NOT involved during estimation for Agile projects?

a)Product Owner
b)Scrum Master
c)Scrum Team
d)End user

Ans: D

46. Which of the following is NOT an estimation methodology at Proposal Level?

a)Quick Function Point
b)COCOMO
c)Story Point
d)None of the above

Ans: C

47.Story Point estimation is done for Sprint Planning:

ANS – FALSE

48.Which of the following is INCORRECT about Function Point Estimation?

a)Can be used as a reference across organization
b)Not an industry standard method for measurement
c)Can be used for Agile projects
d)Used to measure the size of an application

Ans: B

49.Story Point estimation has below properties:

a)Consensus-based
b)Can differ from team to team for same User Stories
c)Is a Relative measure of complexity
d)All of the above

Ans: D

50.What is the purpose of Burndown charts?

a)To visually represent the progress of the project
b)To provide an indication on when the remaining work will be completed
c)To graphically represent work yet to be completed over a time scale
d)All of the above

Ans: D

51.QPM aligns project level strategies to meet the objectives at the Sprint and Release level.

ANS – TRUE

52.What is the purpose of setting goals at a Project, Release and Sprint level?

a)To let customer know that team understands his or her needs
b)To help team plan the project better in terms of realistic targets, appropriate strategies and quantitatively track Project/Sprint progress
c)To monitor the project progress and update internal stakeholders in an objective manner
d)Both (b) and (c)

Ans: D

53.Sprint level metrics for Infosys Global Agile projects is/are:

a)Velocity
b)Defect density
c)Both a) and b)
d)None of the above

Ans: C

54.To define the goals for a project, what are the feasible options to adopt?

a)Past performance of similar project of different client
b)Process capability base line of the organization
c)Past performance of the same project with same client
d)Any of the above

Ans: D

55.Which of the following is the CORRECT sequence for risk management process?

a)Risk Identification -> Risk Response Planning ->Risk Analysis ->Risk Monitoring and Control
b)Risk Identification ->Risk Response Planning ->Risk Monitoring and Control ->Risk Analysis
c)Risk Identification ->Risk Analysis ->Risk Response Planning ->Risk Monitoring and Control
d)Risk Response Planning ->Risk Identification ->Risk Analysis ->Risk Monitoring and Control

Ans: C

56.Which one of the following is the risk response strategy for managing risks?

a)Risk Avoidance
b)Risk Mitigation
c)Risk Acceptance
d)All of the above

Ans: D

57.Requirements are not detailed before start of the Sprint and are changing during the Sprint. Under which of the following category does this risk fall?

a)Client Relationship
b)Scope/Requirements/NFRs
c)Environment and Infrastructure
d)Project Profile

Ans: B

58.The identified tools are not suitable for Test Automation in Agile projects. What would be the probable mitigation action for this risk?

a)Perform proper due diligence before proposing automation tool for Agile testing
b)Create reusable checklists for testing
c)Ensure most of the assumptions are documented
d)None of the above

Ans: A

59.Which of the following risks DOES NOT qualify under Environment and Infrastructure category?

a)Project setup is not planned and will adversely affect the schedule
b)Unrealistic commitments to the clients has exposed the project to very high risk situations
c)Extreme delays are expected in procurement of tools and software licenses
d)Slow link/connectivity has adverse impact on the schedule and quality of deliverables

Ans: B

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