Enterprise Performance Management MCQ

Hello friends in this post we are going to discuss about Enterprise Performance Management Multiple choice questions | Enterprise Performance Management MCQ with Answers | Enterprise Performance Management | Enterprise Performance Management Objective type questions | Enterprise Performance Management Question Answers

Q.1). Performance Management defined
a) The activity where a line manager sets objectives for his/her staff
b) To develop punitive steps to address poor performance
c) To ensure all stakeholder requirements will be met
d) To comply with the requirements of HR
Ans: c
Q.2). Performance management is believed to have originated from which country?
a) Japan
b) France
c) Denmark
d) USA
Ans: d
Q.3). Which of the following statements about performance management systems
is not true?

a) Performance management systems are ineffective
b) They encourage a short-term view among managers
c) Recommendations are prescriptive and suggest one best way
d) They improve organisational performance in the long-term
Ans: d
Q.4). The term ‘EVA’ is used for:
a) Extra Value Analysis,
b) Economic Value Added,
c) Expected Value Analysis,
d) Engineering Value Analysis.
Ans: b
Q.5). DU PONT Analysis deals with:
a) Analysis of Current Assets,
b) Analysis of Profit,
c) Capital Budgeting,
d) Analysis of Fixed Assets
Ans: b

Q.6). Return on Investment may be improved by one of these:
a) Increasing Turnover,
b) increasing Expenses,
c) decreasing Capital Utilization,
d) over budgeting
Ans: a
Q.7). Planning of Performance requires:
a) Translating the job description into objectives and measures
b) Assessing your culture
c) Setting aligned KPA’s and objectives
d) Defining a development plan for employees
Ans: c & d
Q.8). Maintaining performance includes:
a) Checking up staff to ensure they perform optimally
b) Provide coaching and training where gaps exist
c) Formal feedback
d) Disciplining poor performance
Ans: b & d
Q.9). Key Value Drivers are:
a) The assets of the company
b) The requirements and expectations of all key stakeholders
c) Formally reported in the annual report
d) The basis of strategy and operational focus areas
Ans: b & d
Q.10). Budgetary control involves all but one of the following:
a) Modifying future plans.
b) Analyzing differences.
c) Using static budgets.
d) Determining differences between actual and planned results.
Ans: c
Q.11). A static budget is useful in controlling costs when cost behavior is:
a) Mixed.
b) Fixed.
c) Variable.
d) Linear.
Ans: b

Q.12). Under responsibility accounting, the evaluation of a manager’s performance is based
on matters that the manager:
a) Directly controls.
b) Directly and indirectly controls.
c) Indirectly controls.
d) Has shared responsibility for with another manager.
Ans: a
Q.13). Responsibility centers include:
a) Adjustment centers.
b) Call centers.
c) Exam centers.
d) Profit center.
Ans: d
Q.14). Responsibility reports for cost centers:
a) Distinguish between fixed and variable costs.
b) Use static budget data.
c) Include both controllable and non-controllable costs.
d) Include only controllable costs.
Ans: d
Q.15). In a responsibility report for a profit center, controllable fixed costs are deducted from
contribution margin to show:
a) Profit center margin.
b) Controllable margin.
c) Net income.
d) Income from operations.
Ans: b
Q.16). In the formula for return on investment (ROI), the factors for controllable margin and
operating assets are, respectively:

a) Controllable margin percentage and total operating assets.
b) Controllable margin dollars and average operating assets.
c) Controllable margin dollars and total assets.
d) Controllable margin percentage and average operating assets.
Ans: b
Q.17). A manager of an investment center can improve ROI by:
a) Increasing average operating assets.
b) Reducing sales.
c) Increasing variable costs.
d) Reducing variable and/or controllable fixed costs.

Ans: d
Q.18). In the formula for residual income, the factors for computing residual income are:
a) Contribution margin, controllable margin, and average operating assets.
b) Controllable margin, average operating assets, and ROI.
c) Controllable margin, average operating assets, and minimum rate of return.
d) Controllable margin, ROI, and minimum rate of return.
Ans: c
Q.19). When managers of subunits throughout an organization strive to achieve the goals
set by top management, the result is:
a) Goal congruence.
b) Planning and control.
c) Responsibility accounting.
d) Delegation of decision making.
Ans: a
Q.20). Which of the following is not an example of a responsibility center?
a) Revenue center.
b) Profit center.
c) Investment center.
d) Contribution center.
Ans: d
Q.21). Which of the following would have a low likelihood of being organized as a profit
center?

a) A maintenance department that charges users for its services.
b) The billing department of an Internet Services Provider (ISP).
c) The mayor’s office in a large city.
d) Both “C” and “D” above.
Ans: d
Q.22). A cost center manager:
a) Does not have the ability to produce revenue.
b) May be involved with the sale of new marketing programs to clients.
c) Would normally be held accountable for producing an adequate return on invested
capital.
d) Often oversees divisional operations.
Ans: a

Q.23). A responsibility center in which the manager is held accountable for the profitable use
of assets and capital is commonly known as a(n):

a) Cost center.
b) Revenue center.
c) Profit center.
d) Investment center.
Ans: d
Q.24). Performance reports help managers:
a) Use management by exception and effectively control operations.
b) Design their organizational hierarchy.
c) Pinpoint trouble spots.
d) By assisting with functions “A” and “D.”
Ans: d
Q.25). Performance reports provide feedback to managers and allow them to better control
operations.

II. Many performance reports have budget, actual, and variance data.
III. Performance reports are often structured around a firm’s organizational hierarchy—
that is, data relating to lower-level units (e.g., departments) are combined and flow into
higher-level units (e.g., stores).
Which of the above statements is (are) true?
a) I only.
b) I and II.
c) I and III.
d) I, II, and III.
Ans: d
Q.26). Responsibility accounting systems strive to:
a) Place blame on guilty individuals.
b) Provide information to managers.
c) Hold managers accountable for both controllable and non-controllable costs.
d) Provide information so that managers can make decisions that are in the best interest of
their individual centers rather than in the best interests of the firm as a whole.
Ans: b
Q.27). Controllable costs, as used in a responsibility accounting system, consist of:
a) Only fixed costs.
b) Only direct materials and direct labor.
c) Those costs that a manager can influence in the time period under review.
d) Those costs about which a manager has some knowledge. Those costs that are
influenced by parties external to the organization.
Ans: c

Q.28). For a company that uses responsibility accounting, which of the following costs is
least likely to appear on a performance report of an assembly-line supervisor?

a) Direct materials used.
b) Departmental supplies.
c) Assembly-line labor.
d) Assembly-line facilities depreciation.
Ans: d
Q.29). Which one is the Capital Expenditure?
a) Capital invested by the owner
b) Selling expense for machine
c) Machine purchased
d) Daily expenses to operate business
Ans: c
Q.30). If capital expense is recorded as revenue expense then which calculation will be
wrong?

a) Bank balance
b) Debtors
c) Creditors
d) Net profit
Ans: d
Q.31). Capital expenditure
i) Car purchased for sale
ii) Machine purchased for business use
iii) Road tax and insurance premium of delivery van
Which one is correct of the following?
a) i & ii
b) ii & iii
c) i & iii
d) i, ii & iii
Ans: b
Q.32). Sale of machine of machine merchandising business –
a) Capital receipt
b) Capital income
c) Revenue income
d) Revenue receipt
Ans: d

Q.33). In comprehensive income statement we record –
i) Revenue receipt
ii) Revenue income
iii) Capital expenditure
Which one is correct of the following?
a) i & ii
b) ii & iii
c) i & iii
d) ii
Ans: b
Q.34). A Balanced Scorecard helps the organisation to:
a) Be ready and prepared to implement an ERP
b) Be focus on all the relevant business perspectives
c) Integrate strategy and key challenges
d) Communicate better with staff
Ans: b c & d
Q.35). What do we call a formal comparison of the actual costs and benefits of a project with
original estimates?

a) Post-completion audit
b) Feedback audit
c) Cost-benefit analysis
d) Business scorecard report
Ans: a
Q.36). What is the term used to describe the value assigned to the goods or services sold or
rented from one unit of an organization to another

a) Variable cost
b) Fixed cost
c) Transfer price
d) Full service cost
Ans: c
Q.37). What should be added to the opportunity cost of the resource at the point of transfer to
obtain the general principle transfer price that leads managers to make decisions in a firm’s
best interest?

a) Sunk cost
b) Variable cost
c) Outlay cost
d) Transfer cost
Ans: c
Q.38). If an intermediate market exists, the general rule is that the optimal transfer price should
be the:

a) Outlay cost for producing the goods
b) Opportunity cost of not selling to the outside market
c) Market price
d) Variable costs associated with producing the product
Ans: c
Q.39). Which transfer pricing method will preserve the subunit autonomy?
a) Variable-cost pricing
b) Negotiated pricing
c) Cost-based pricing
d) Full-cost pricing
Ans: b
Q.40). When a perfectly competitive market exists and the firm uses market-based transfer
pricing, the firm can achieve all of the following except for:

a) Management effort
b) Subunit performance evaluation
c) Price monopoly
d) Goal congruence
Ans: c
Q.41). The method of calculating return on assets which highlights the importance of sales,
profit margin and asset turnover is known as

a) The sales method
b) Du-pont analysis
c) The altman model
d) The gordon model
Ans: b
Q.42). Asset utilization ratios measure all of the following except
a) Productivity of fixed assets in terms of sales
b) The relationship of the income statement to cash of the asset groups on the balance
c) Sheet.

d) How many times per year the inventory is sold and accounts receivable collected.
Ans: d
Q.43). Financial ratios are used to weigh and evaluate:
a) The operating performance and capital structure of the firm.
b) Which stocks are the “gold mine” stocks when investing in the market?
c) Which stocks are about to file for bankruptcy.
d) The net present value of the company.
Ans: a
Q.44). ___ is a measure of operating performance that indicates how
successful the firm has been at increasing its MVA in a given year.

a) Economic value added (EVA)
b) After-tax cash flow (ATCF)
c) Earnings after taxes (EAT)
d) Market value added (MVA)
Ans: a
Q.45). What is not included in a firm’s expenses?
a) Costs of goods sold
b) Depreciation
c) Interest expense
d) Dividends
Ans: d
Q.46). ROI can be viewed as a function of the net profit margin times
a) Sales.
b) EAT.
c) The total asset turnover.
d) Equity multiplier.
Ans: c
Q.47). If a significant portion of the assets of a firm has a market value __ book value,
the quality of the firm’s balance sheet is reduced.

a) Equal to
b) Substantially below
c) Substantially above
d) None of the above
Ans: b

Q.48). Which of the following is not a profitability ratio?
a) Profitability ratio
b) Net profit margin ratio
c) Times interest earned ratio
d) return on investment ratio
Ans: c
Q.49). Which of the following variable does ROI examine?
a) Eat
b) Sales
c) Total assets
d) All of the above
Ans: d
Q.50). The __ compares the dollar return generated by the firm to the return expected
by the investors of the capital invested by them in the firm.

a) EBIT
b) EVA
c) ROI
d) DuPont chart
Ans: b
Q.51). Return on Assets and Return on Investment Ratios belong to:
a) Liquidity Ratios
b) Profitability Ratios,
c) Solvency Ratios,
d) Turnover
Ans: b
Q.52). Capital Budgeting is a part of:
a) Investment Decision,
b) Working Capital Management
c) Marketing Management,
d) Capital Structure.
Ans: a
Q.53). Capital Budgeting deals with:
a) Long-term Decisions,
b) Short-term Decisions,

c) Both (a) and (b),
d) Neither
e) nor (b).
Ans: a
Q.54). Which of the following is not used in Capital Budgeting?
a) Time Value of Money,
b) Sensitivity Analysis,
c) Net Assets Method,
d) Cash Flows.
Ans: c
Q.55). Capital Budgeting Decisions are:
a) Reversible,
b) Irreversible,
c) Unimportant,
d) All of the above.
Ans: b
Q.56). Which of the following is not incorporated in Capital Budgeting?
a) Tax-Effect,
b) Time Value of Money,
c) Required Rate of Return,
d) Rate of Cash Discount.
Ans: d
Q.57). Which of the following is not a capital budgeting decision?
a) Expansion Programme,
b) Merger,
c) Replacement of an Asset,
d) Inventory Level.
Ans: d
Q.58). A sound Capital Budgeting technique is based on:
a) Cash Flows,
b) Accounting Profit,
c) Interest Rate on Borrowings,
d) Last Dividend Paid.

Ans: a
Q.59). Which of the following is not a relevant cost in Capital Budgeting?
a) Sunk Cost,
b) Opportunity Cost,
c) Allocated Overheads,
d) Both (a) and (c) above.
Ans: d
Q.60). Capital Budgeting Decisions are based on:
a) Incremental Profit,
b) Incremental Cash Flows,
c) Incremental Assets,
d) Incremental Capital.
Ans: b
Q.61). Which of the following does not affect cash flows proposal?
a) Salvage Value,
b) Depreciation Amount,
c) Tax Rate Change,
d) Method of Project Financing.
Ans: d
Q.62). Cash Inflows from a project include:
a) Tax Shield of Depreciation,
b) After-tax Operating Profits,
c) Raising of Funds,
d) Both (a) and (b).
Ans: c
Q.63). Which measure of performance is arguably most useful to shareholders
a) Economic value added
b) Wealth added index
c) Return on investment
d) Discounted cash flow
Ans: b

Q.64). The balanced scorecard approach is a framework for measuring performance based on
four factors. These are ‘innovation and learning’, ‘the customer perspective’, ‘the internal
perspective’ and:

a) The key shareholder perspective
b) The external perspective
c) The financial perspective
d) The helicopter perspective
Ans: c
Q.65). The Balanced Scorecard approach has been criticized for leaving out certain measures.
One of these is:

a) Financial measures
b) Employee satisfaction measures
c) Customer satisfaction measures
d) Technological innovation measures
Ans: b
Q.66). How many measures do Kaplan and Norton recommend an organization should include
when using the balanced scorecard approach?

a) 10-20
b) 20-30
c) 50-100
d) 80-120
Ans: b
Q.67). In the balanced scorecard approach quality would come under which perspective?
a) The internal perspective
b) The customer perspective
c) The financial perspective
d) The innovation and learning perspective
Ans: a
Q.68). The U.S. National Quality Award is named after
a) Joseph Juran
b) Genichi Taguchi
c) W. Edwards Deming
d) Malcolm Baldrige
Ans: d
Q.69). The overall purpose of the balanced scorecard approach is to:

a) Help turn strategy into action
b) Benchmark against competitors
c) Measure financial performance
d) Measure product quality
Ans: a
Q.70). The problem with using financial measures alone to measure organizational
performance is that:

a) They need to be compared with competitors to have any real meaning
b) They are only understood by accountants
c) There are many different measures available
d) The measures are usually contradictory
Ans: a
Q.71). Which of the following is not true with reference capital budgeting?
a) Capital budgeting is related to asset replacement decisions,
b) Cost of capital is equal to minimum required return,
c) Existing investment in a project is not treated as sunk cost,
d) Timing of cash flows is relevant.
Ans: c
Q.72). Which of the following is not followed in capital budgeting?
a) Cash flows Principle,
b) Interest Exclusion Principle,
c) Accrual Principle,
d) Post-tax Principle.
Ans: c
Q.73). Which of the following is not true for capital budgeting?
a) Sunk costs are ignored,
b) Opportunity costs are excluded,
c) Incremental cash flows are considered,
d) Relevant cash flows are considered.
Ans: b
Q.74). Which of the following is not applied in capital budgeting?
a) Cash flows be calculated in incremental terms,
b) All costs and benefits are measured on cash basis,

c) All accrued costs and revenues be incorporated,
d) All benefits are measured on after-tax basis.
Ans: c
Q.75). Evaluation of Capital Budgeting Proposals is based on Cash Flows because:
a) Cash Flows are easy to calculate,
b) Cash Flows are suggested by SEBI,
c) Cash is more important than profit,
d) None of the above.
Ans: c
Q.76). Which of the following is not included in incremental A flows?
a) Opportunity Costs,
b) Sunk Costs,
c) Change in Working Capital,
d) Inflation effect.
Ans: b
Q.77). A proposal is not a Capital Budgeting proposal if it:
a) Is related to Fixed Assets,
b) Brings long-term benefits,
c) Brings short-term benefits only,
d) Has very large investment.
Ans: c
Q.78). In Capital Budgeting, Sunk cost is excluded because it is:
a) Of Small Amount,
b) Not Incremental,
c) Not Reversible,
d) All of the Above.
Ans: b
Q.79). Savings in respect of a cost is treated in capital budgeting as:
a) An Inflow,
b) An Outflow,
c) Nil,
d) None of the above.

Ans: a
Q.80). According to DuPont analysis, an increase in the profit margin (all else constant) should:
a) Increase both ROE and ROA.
b) Increase ROE but not ROA.
c) Increase ROA but not ROE.
d) Increase neither ROA nor ROE.
Ans: a
Q.81). According to DuPont analysis, an increase in asset turnover (all else constant) should:
a) Increase both ROE and ROA.
b) Increase ROE but not ROA.
c) Increase ROA but not ROE.
d) Increase neither ROA nor ROE.
Ans: a
Q.82). According to DuPont analysis, an increase in the equity multiplier (all else constant)
should:

a) Increase both ROE and ROA.
b) Increase ROE but not ROA.
c) Increase ROA but not ROE.
d) Increase neither ROA nor ROE.
Ans: b
Q.83). The Complete Balanced Scorecard Strategy Map lists perspectives along with sub
items. Identify the correct link for Financial Perspective

a) Customer solutions
b) Operations Theme
c) Strategic Competencies
d) Productivity Strategy
Ans: d
Q.84). Identify the correct link for Customer Perspective in The Complete Balanced Scorecard
Strategy Map

a) Product Leader
b) Innovation Theme
c) Revenue Growth Strategy
d) Organization Alignment

Ans: a
Q.85). Internal Perspective is part of the Complete Balanced Scorecard Strategy. This is a
correct sub item for this perspective

a) Regulatory and Society Theme
b) Customer solutions
c) Strategic Technologies
d) Revenue Growth Strategy
Ans: a
Q.86). Learning & Growth Perspective: role for intangible assets — people, systems, climate
and culture is part of the BSC Strategy. Identify which of the following is a sub item of
Learning & Growth Perspective

a) Improve shareholder value
b) Low total cost
c) Operations theme
d) Strategic technologies
Ans: d
Q.87). Nonprofit and government organizations (NPGOs)
a) Are unable to use the BSC effectively
b) Do not measure success by financial measures
c) Success has to be measured by their effectiveness in providing benefits to constituents
d) BSC is not the natural performance management system for NPGOs
Ans: c
Q.88). The process of evaluating an employee’s current and/or past performance relative to his
or her performance standards is called _.

a) recruitment
b) employee selection
c) performance appraisal
d) organizational development
Ans: c
Q.89). Pitfalls exists the same as with any new technology or management tool. All of the
following describe these pitfalls except

e) Some companies use too few measures in their score
f) Some companies include too many measures
g) A poor scorecard is the biggest threat and one of the dangerous pitfalls
h) Some companies do not know how to implement the effective drivers of performance
Ans: c

Q.90). Which of the following statements regarding flaws suffered by financial measures is not
correct:

a) They are hard to quantify
b) They do little to motivate employees to improve accounting profits
c) They are not effective in getting managers’ attention
d) They are useful in identifying operational problems
Ans: d
Q.91). If return on investment is a measure used on the balanced scorecard, under which
perspective would it be listed

a) Financial perspective
b) Customer perspective
c) Learning and growth perspective
d) Internal business perspective
Ans: a
Q.92). Which one of the following is not one of the Balanced Scorecard’s four generic
perspectives

a) Internal business processes
b) Innovation and learning
c) Financial
d) Marketing and advertising
Ans: d
Q.93). Which one of the following is a ‘lag’ performance indicator
a) Number of training hours per employee
b) Return on capital employed
c) Number of complaints received from customers
d) Output per employee
Ans: b
Q.94). Which one of the following statements is true
a) Balanced Scorecards can only be updated on an annual basis
b) Balanced Scorecards always have four perspectives
c) Balanced Scorecards can be used in Not-for-Profit organisations
d) Balanced Scorecards are a feedback mechanism
Ans: c
Q.95). Which of the following statements is false? Balanced scorecards
a) Are one type of performance dashboard

b) Can be cascaded to different levels/parts of organisations
c) Cannot be used in conjunction with budgetary control systems
d) Can be used to produce strategy maps
Ans: c
Q.96). Which of the following statements is correct:
a) One fundamental idea of balanced scorecards is to increase the number of performance
indicators used to manage the business
b) Balanced scorecards always report using the same time periods as the financial
accounting system
c) The fundamental idea of balanced scorecards is to create corporate strategy
d) Organisations sometimes use a ‘traffic-light’ system on their balanced scorecard to help
them prioritise their activities
Ans: d
Q.97). The following are basic elements in which Continuous Improvement framework
(leadership; planning; service orientation; information and analysis; employees and
workplace climate; process management; excellence levels and trends

a) Six Sigma
b) Total Quality Management (TQM)
c) Zero Defect
d) Malcolm Baldridge Quality Award
Ans: d
Q.98). The drive in world markets to produce superior goods has led some countries to
recognize or award prizes. What is the name of U.S. prize for developing quality products:

a) the Deming Prize
b) Malcolm Baldridge National Quality Award
c) the J.D. Power Award
d) the K.C. Irving Quality Award
Ans: b
Q.99). When goal setting, performance appraisal, and development are consolidated into a
single, common system designed to ensure that employee performance supports a
company’s strategy, it is called _.

a) Strategic organizational development
b) Performance management
c) Performance appraisal
d) Human resource management
Ans: b

Q.100). Performance management combines performance appraisal with _ to
ensure that employee performance is supportive of corporate goals.

a) Goal setting
b) Absenteeism
c) Incentive systems & Goal setting
d) Strategic management
Ans: c

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