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1. Which of the following questions does guidance in Service Strategy help answer?
1: What services should we offer and to whom?
2: How do we differentiate ourselves from competing alternatives?
3: How do we truly create value for our customers?
B.2 only C.3 only
D. All of the above
2. Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the Service Design Manager?
A. Design and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages
B. Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology architecture, processes or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and future IT requirements of the organization
C. Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design process and the service designs that are produced
D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of Service Design and the supporting processes
3. Which of the following are valid examples of business value measures?
1: Customer retention
2: Time to market
3: Service Architecture
4: Market share
A.1 and 2 only
B.2 and 4 only
C. All of the above
D.1, 2 and 4 only
4. Understanding customer usage of services and how this varies over time is part of which process?
A. Service Portfolio Management
B. Service Level Management
C. Component Capacity Management
D. Demand Management
5. The MAIN objective of Service Level Management is:
A. To carry out the Service Operations activities needed to support current IT services
B. To ensure that sufficient capacity is provided to deliver the agreed performance of services
C.To create and populate a Service Catalogue
D. To ensure that an agreed level of IT service is provided for all current IT services
6. Which of the following are responsibilities of a Service Level Manager?
1: Agreeing targets in Service Level Agreements (SLAs)
2: Designing technology architectures to support the service
3: Ensuring required contracts and agreements are in place
A. All of the above
B.2 and 3 only
C.1 and 2 only
D.1 and 3 only
7. Which of the following is a good metric for measuring the effectiveness of Service Level Management?
A.Customer satisfaction score
B.Average number of daily Incidents managed by each service agent
C.Number of services in the Service Portfolio
D.Number of services deployed within agreed times
8. Major Incidents require:
9. Which of the following should be done when closing an Incident?
1: Check the Incident categorization and correct it if necessary
2: Decide whether a Problem needs to be logged
B.Both of the above
D.None of the above
10. Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Request Fulfilment?
A.To provide information to users about what services are available and how to request them
B.To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the Service Desk
C.To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
D.To source and deliver the components of standard services that have been requested
11. Which of the following would NOT be a task carried out by the Request Fulfilment process?
A.The sourcing and delivering of the components of requested standard services (e.g. licenses and software media)
B.Provision of a channel for users to request and receive standard services for which a pre-defined approval and qualification process exists
C.Provision of information to users and customers about the availability of services and the procedure for obtaining them
D.Provision of information used to compare actual performance against design standards
12. How many numbered steps are in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) process?
13. Which Functions are included in IT Operations Management?
A.Network Management and Application Management
B.Technical Management and Application Management
C.IT Operations Control and Facilities Management
D.Facilities Management and Technical Management
14. The ITIL CORE publications are structured around the Service Lifecycle. Which of the following statements about the ITIL COMPLEMENTARY guidance is CORRECT?
A.It is also structured around the Service Lifecycle
B.It provides guidance to specific industry sectors and types of organization
C.It consists of five publications
D.It provides the guidance necessary for an integrated approach as required by ISO/IEC 20000
15. Which of the following should be supported by technology?
1: Verification of Configuration Management System (CMS) data
2: Control of user desk-tops
3: Creation and use of diagnostic scripts
4: Visibility of overall IT Service performance
A.2, 3 and 4 only
B.1, 2 and 3 only
C.1, 3 and 4 only
D.All of the above
16. Which of the following CANNOT be provided by a tool?
17. The BEST Processes to automate are those that are:
A.Carried out by Service Operations
B.Carried out by lots of people
C.Critical to the success of the business mission
D.Simple and well understood
18. Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the Service Operation phase of the Lifecycle?
1: Identifying configuration of user desktop PCs when Incidents are logged
2: Control of user desk-top PCs
3: Create and use diagnostic scripts
4: Dashboard type technology
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.All of the above
C.1, 3 and 4 only
D.2, 3 and 4 only
19. Which of the following are the two primary elements that create value for customers?
A.Value on Investment (VOI), Return on Investment (ROI)
B.Customer and User satisfaction
C.Understanding Service Requirements and Warranty
D.Utility and Warranty
20. What is the Service Pipeline?
A.All services that are at a conceptual or development stage, or are undergoing testing
B.All services except those that have been retired
C.All services that are contained within the Service Level Agreement (SLA)
D.All complex multi-user services
21. What are the types of activity within Demand Management?
A.Activity based, Access Management
B.Activity based, Business activity patterns and user profiles
C. Analytical based, Business activity patterns and user profiles
D. Analytical based, Shaping user behavior
22. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of Service Transition?
A.To ensure that a service can be managed, operated and supported
B.To provide training and certification in project management
C.To provide quality knowledge of Change, Release and Deployment Management
D.To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a Release
23. Which of the following statements BEST describes a Definitive Media Library (DML)?
A.A secure location where definitive hardware spares are held
B.A secure library where definitive authorised versions of all media Configuration Items (CIs) are stored and protected
C.A database that contains definitions of all media CIs
D.A secure library where definitive authorised versions of all software and back-ups are stored and protected
24. One organisation provides and manages an entire business process or function for another organisation. This is know as:
A.Business Process Management
B.Business Function Outsourcing
C.Business Process Outsourcing
D.Knowledge Process Outsourcing
25. Which Service Design process makes the most use of data supplied by Demand Management?
A.Service Catalogue Management
B.Service Level Management
C.IT Service Continuity Management
26. What is the BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation?
A.To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
B.To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
C.To design and build processes that will meet business needs
D.To deliver and manage IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
27. Availability Management is responsible for availability the of:
A.Services and Components
B.Services and Business Processes
C.Components and Business Processes
D.Services, Components and Business Processes
28. Which of the following is a sub-process of Capacity Management?
A.Component Capacity Management
B.Process Capacity Management
C.Technology Capacity Management
D.Capability Capacity Management
29. The group that authorises Changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called the:
B.Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB)
C.Urgent Change Board (UCB)
D.Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
30. Which of the following statements BEST describes the aims of Release and Deployment Management?
A.To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by Service Design and that will accomplish the stakeholders requirements and deliver the intended objectives
B.To ensure that each Release package specified by Service Design consists of a set of related assets and service components that are compatible with each other
C.To ensure that all Release and Deployment packages can be tracked, installed, tested, verified and/or uninstalled or backed out if appropriate
D.To record and manage deviations, risks and issues related to the new or changed service
31. Which of the following is step 1 in the 7 Step Improvement Process?
A.Prepare for action
B.Define what you should measure
C.Where are we now?
D.Identify gaps in Service Level Agreement (SLA) achievement
32. Which of the following is NOT a FUNCTION?
33. Which of the following BEST describes a Service Desk?
A.A process within Service Operation providing a single point of contact
B.A dedicated number of staff handling service requests
C.A dedicated number of staff answering questions from users
D.A dedicated number of staff handling Incidents and service requests
34. Which of these activities would you expect to be performed by a Service Desk?
1: Logging details of Incidents and service requests
2: Providing first-line investigation and diagnosis
3: Restoring service
4: Diagnosing the root-cause of problems
A.All of the above
B.1, 2 and 3 only
C.1, 2 and 4 only
D.2, 3 and 4 only
35. Which of the following functions would be responsible for management of a data centre?
C.IT Operations Control
36. Governance is concerned with:
A.Measuring and improving the efficiency and effectiveness of processes
B.Ensuring that defined strategy is actually followed
C.Reducing the total cost of providing services
D.Ensuring that agreed Service Level Requirements are met
37. A risk is:
A.Something that won’t happen
B.Something that will happen
C.Something that has happened
D.Something that might happen
38. Which of the following BEST describes when a Known Error record should be raised?
A.A Known Error should not be raised until a temporary resolution or workaround has been found
B.A Known Error should be raised at any time that it would be useful to do so
C.As soon as it becomes obvious that a quick resolution of the Problem will not be found
D.Immediately following the Problem resolution, so a permanent historical record of all actions is retained in case of a recurrence
39. IT Operations Management have been asked by a customer to carry out a non-standard activity, that will cause them to miss an agreed service level target. How should they respond?
A.Refuse the request because they must operate the service to meet the agreed service levels
B.Make a decision based on balancing stability and responsiveness
C.Accept the request as they must support customer business outcomes
D.They should escalate this decision to Service Strategy
40. Which process is responsible for recording relationships between service components?
A.Service Level Management
B.Service Portfolio Management
C.Service Asset and Configuration Management
41. A single Release unit, or a structured set of Release units can be defined within:
A.The RACI Model
B.A Release Package
C.A Request Model
D.The Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle
42. Which of the following might be used to define how a future Problem or Incident could be managed?
1: Incident Model
2: Known Error Record
C.Both of the above
D.Neither of the above
43. Which process is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring, low cost changes?
C.Release and Deployment Management
44. Which role is accountable for a specific service within an organisation?
A.The Service Level Manager
B.The Business Relationship Manager
C.The Service Owner
D.The Service Continuity Manager
45. Which of the following is NOT an aim of the Change Management process?
A.Overall business risk is optimised
B.Standardised methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all Changes
C.All changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items (CIs) are recorded in the Configuration Management System (CMS)
D.All budgets and expenditures are accounted for
46. Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design?
A.The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue
B.The design of new or changed services
C.The design of Market Spaces
D.The design of the technology architecture and management systems
47. One of the five major aspects of Service Design is the design of service solutions. Which of the following does this include?
A.Only capabilities needed and agreed
B.Only resources and capabilities needed
C.Only requirements needed and agreed
D.Requirements, resources and capabilities needed and agreed
48. Which of the following is a valid role in the RACI Authority Matrix?
49. What is a RACI model used for?
B.Recording Configuration Items
D.Defining roles and responsibilities
50. Which of the following models would be most useful in helping to define an organisational structure?
C.Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model
D.Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) Model
51. Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?
A.Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate
B.Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
C.Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service Portfolio
D.Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue
52. Which of the following delivery strategies is described as, “Formal arrangements between two or more organisations to work together to design, develop transition, maintain, operate and/or support IT services”?
B.Application Service Provision
D.Knowledge Process Outsourcing
53. To add value to the business, what are the four reasons to monitor and measure?
A.Validate; Direct; Justify; Intervene
B.Report; Manage; Improve; Extend
C.Manage; Monitor; Diagnose; Intervene
D.Plan; Predict; Report; Justify
54. Which of the following provides resources to resolve operational and support issues during Release and Deployment?
A.Early Life Support
B.Service Test Manager
D.Release Packaging and Build Manager
55. What does a service always deliver to customers?
56. Who owns the specific costs and risks associated with providing a service?
A.The Service Provider
B.The Service Level Manager
57. Which stage of the Service Lifecycle is MOST concerned with defining policies and objectives?
58. Which of the following is MOST concerned with the design of new or changed services?
59. Which of the following are benefits that implementing Service Transition could provide to the business?
1: Ability to adapt quickly to new requirements
2: Reduced cost to design new services
3: Improved success in implementing changes
A.1 and 2 only
B.2 and 3 only
C.1 and 3 only
D.All the above
60. Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?
A.A Change to the service provider’s established policies and guidelines
B.A Change that correctly follows the required Change process
C.A pre-authorised Change that has an accepted and established procedure
D.A Change that is made as the result of an audit
61. Which of the following are activities that would be carried out by Supplier Management?
1: Management and review of Organisational Level Agreements (OLAs)
2: Evaluation and selection of suppliers
3: Ongoing management of suppliers
A.1 and 2 only
B.1 and 3 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.All of the above
62. Which stages of the Service Lifecycle does the 7 Step Improvement Process apply to?
B.Service Transition and Service Operation
C.Service Design, Service Transition and Service Operation
D.Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation and Continual Service Improvement
63. Which of the following is the CORRECT description of the Seven R’s of Change Management?
A.A set of questions that should be asked to help understand the impact of Changes
B.A seven step process for releasing Changes into production
C.A set of questions that should be asked when reviewing the success of a recent Change
D.A definition of the roles and responsibilities required for Change Management
64. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? An Event could be caused by:
1: An exception to normal operation, such as a device exceeding a threshold or an unauthorized Configuration Item (CI) being detected on the network
2: Normal operation, such as a user logging into an application or an email reaching its intended recipient
C.Both of the above
D.Neither of the above
65. Which of the following is the BEST definition of the term Service Management?
A.A set of specialised organisational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services
B.A group of interacting, interrelated, or independent components that form a unified whole, operating together for a common purpose
C.The management of functions within an organisation to perform certain activities
D.Units of organisations with roles to perform certain activities
66. Implementation of ITIL Service Management requires preparing and planning the effective and efficient use of:
A.People, Process, Partners, Suppliers
B.People, Process, Products, Technology
C.People, Process, Products, Partners
D.People, Products, Technology, Partners
67. “Service Management is a set of specialised organisational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services”.
These specialised organisational capabilities include which of the following?
A.Applications and Infrastructure
B.Functions and Processes
C.Service Pipeline and Service Catalogue
D.Markets and Customers
68. The left-hand side of the Service V Model represents requirements and specifications. What does the right-hand side of the Service V Model represent?
A.Validation and Testing
B.The business value that can be expected from a given service
C.Performance and capacity requirements of services and IT infrastructure
D.Roles and responsibilities required for an effective Service Management implementation
69. An IT department is under pressure to cut costs. As a result, the quality of services has started to suffer. What imbalance does this represent?
A.Extreme focus on cost
B.Extreme focus on quality
70. What would be the next step in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model after:
1: What is the vision?
2: Where are we now?
3: Where do we want to be?
4: How do we get there?
5: Did we get there?
A.What is the Return On Investment (ROI)?
B.How much did it cost?
C.How do we keep the momentum going?
D.What is the Value On Investment (VOI)?
71. Order the following Continual Service Improvement (CSI) implementation steps into the correct sequence in alignment with the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) model.
1: Allocate roles and responsibilities to work on CSI initiatives
2: Measure and review that the CSI plan is executed and its objectives are being achieved
3: Identify the scope, objectives and requirements for CSI
4: Implement CSI enhancement
72. Which activities are carried out in the “Where do we want to be?” step of the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model?
A.Implementing service and process improvements
B.Aligning the business and IT strategies
C.Creating a baseline
D.Defining measurable targets