SI Primer Academy Question Answers

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Q1.Identify the correct lifecycle of ADM Program and Project Management

a. Plan, Analyze, Build, Design, Deploy, Test
b. Plan, Analyze, Build, Design, Test, Deploy
c. Plan, Analyze, Design, Build, Deploy, Test
d. Plan, Analyze, Design, Build, Test, Deploy

Ans: d

Q2. Which of the following statements describe the Polymorphism principle of the GRASP approach to object-oriented design?

a. Polymorphism is accomplished through inheritance and overriding
b. A child class and a parent class have different types
c. Methods of the superclass can be used in the subclasses
d. An object can be used as if it were an object of its superclass while still using its overridden methods

Ans: All of these

Q3.According to the Protected Variations principle of the GRASP approach to object-oriented design, how can you avoid the impact of changes of some objects on others in the system?

a. Use interfaces to stabilize predicted changes and variations on the system
b. Use child classes to override existing methods in parent classes
c. Use abstract classes to represent real-world things
D. Use methods that modify a single piece of data inThe class definition

Ans: D

Q4.What are the generic components of an application package?

a. Optional package information files, paickc ckage content, and packaging scripts
b. Developer’s input, package management tool, and package content
c. Optional packaging scripts and summarized package info information file, prototype file, and package

Ans: d

Q5.What is the purpose of packaging in DevOps?

a. To test software__________________
b. To bundle a deployable artifact |
c. To deploy applications
d. To develop software

Ans: b

Q6.______provides instructions to robot.

a. Developer Tools
b. Process recorder
c. All of the above
d. Robot Controller


Q7.Windows PowerShell commands, called?

a. ISE
b. toggle breakpoint
C. a cmdlets
d. parser


Q8.The Agile way is:

a. To produce simple prototypes early, and release all only at the end of the project |
b. To produce working software of high business value and of the right quality, early and incrementally
c. Each developer to sit with business every day, code as they mutually discuss, and move to production when the business seems
d. To produce working software only after requirements documentation has been signed off by the Product Owner


Q9.which of the below option aptly describes “Personas”?

a. Fictional representations of specific user types used to understand the needs of certain user groups or classes
b. Visual representations of stakeholders and solution relationships
c. Stakeholders are categorized according to end users, department names, and external stakeholders and the structure is used to help ensure that no business needs are missed


Q10.Business analysts can use interviews or observation to collect information for business analysis activities. Which statements accurately describe the differences between interviews and observation?

a. Interviews capture explanations, whereas observation identifies informal processes
b. Interviews last about an hour per person, whereas observation can stretch over a whole day for each activity or individual role being observed
c. Interviews are very expensive to conduct, whereas observation is a much cheaper method of collecting information

Ans:All of these

Q11.What statements correctly define the core concepts of business analysis?

a. Solution comprises a proposal that lays out the tasks and events in sequence
b. Stakeholders are individuals or groups who have a vested interest in and can impact the outcome
c. Value is what stakeholders find worthwhile, important, or useful; it can be tangible or intangible
d. Need is a means to solve a problem or achieve an objective

Ans:All of these

Q12.Which of the following options are examples of external project stakeholders?

a. End user
b. Vendor
c. Project sponsor
d. Product analyst

Ans:All of these

Q13.Which statement best defines business analysis?

a. The assessment of tasks and work processes that have been identified as obstacles to an organization’s ability to reach its goals and objectives
b. The act of determining stakeholder desires when setting organizational goals and objectives and how those objectives will be fulfilled
C. The practice of enabling change in an enterprise by defining needs and recommending solutions that provide value for the stakeholders


Q14.Which component of a change management plan defines how wide-spread changes might be?

a. End-user acceptance
b. Rollback
c. Purpose
d. Scope


Q15.Which of the following option is not included in 3 C’s of the change management?

a. Collaboration
b. Coordination |
c. Commitment
d. Communication


Q16.What is the purpose of the configuration settings in the bin folder?

a. To run the project analysis,
b. To integrate the SonarQube scanner with Maven, |

c. To download the latest version of Maven,
d. To configure the Java Virtual Machine,


Q17.How do teams estimate the effort required for a story?

a. Based on the number of hours
b. Based on the number of team members
c. Based on the complexity of the story [
d. Based on the priority of the story


Q18.What is the purpose of establishing a project schedule for CM activiti ith the Project Manager?

a. To ensure that CM standards and procedures are followed |
b. To ensure that all project team members involved in CM receive training
c. To make updates to the CM Plan
d. To identify Cis to be managed under CM processes


Q19.What is the primary benefit of Configuration Management?

a. Prevents unauthorized access to assets
b. Establishes and maintains the integrity of the items that have been placed under its control
c. Coordinates, tracks, and manages change activities
d. Facilitates concurrent development


Q20.Software risk impact assessment should focus on consequences affecting

a. Business, technology, process
b. Marketability, cost, personnel
c. planning, resources, cost, schedule
d. performance, support, cost, schedule


Q21.Individual team members can make their own estimate for a risk and then develop a consensus value

a. False
b. True


Q22.What security practices must be followed for software disposition?

a. Ensuring security functions perform as planned
b. Following the disposition policy for data at rest or backed up, or archived data
c. Performing functional and security testing
d. Assessing requirements for confidentiality, integrity, and availability


Q23.What should be ensured during the SDLC tests and evaluation phases?

a. Integrity of information
b. Availability of information
c. All of the above
d. Confidentiality of information


Q24.Which methodology is a stepped linear model made up of sequential

a. Agile methods
b. DevOps
c. Waterfall |
d. Rapid application development


Q25.Spiral model provides support for

a. Issues diagnosis
b. None of the mentioned abov®
c. Problem Identification
d. Risk handling “


Q26.Which of the following is involved in the system planning and designing phase of the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC)?

a. Sizing
b. Specification freeze
c. All of the above [
d. Parallel run


Q27.Which feature of Agile project management defines that style of project management?

a. Cyclical |
b. Prototype Verification and validation
c. Verification and validation
d. Completed steps


Q28. Which of the following statements best describes the level of risk taking, innovation, imagination, and initiative by members of the group

a. Some team members seem more comfortable with risk-taking and change than others
b. Don’t rock the boat if it’s not broke don’t fix it
c” Beware, we shoot the messenger |
d. Nothing ventured, nothing gained-go for it


Q29. The team which focuses its attention on improvements of a process that is already operating to a satisfactory level is called

a. Natural work team
b. Group-directed/group-managed work team

C.Process improvement team
d. Cross-functional team


Q30.Are Accenture Delivery Methods Customizable

ANS – True

Q31.What of the following is not a key attribute of business modelling?

a. Mission
b. Sales analysis |
c. Vision
d. Strategies


Q32.Why is role and process clarity important when initiating Business Analysis?

a. So that the company can limit billing hours
b. So that Business Analysts are clear about their roles and responsibilities |
c. So that project team members don’t have to be accountable
d. So that hardworking Project Managers are not burdened


Q33.Which component of a business process document describes a manner to discard recent changes that
have been implemented in the business, or to the processes themselves?

a. Organizing a sequence
b. Identifying start and end points
c. Goal statement
d. Defining a roll-back plan


Q34.How do you check the version of Maven installed on your computer?

a. By typing “version” in the command prompt
b. By typing “apache maven version” in the command prompt
c. By typing “maven version” in the command prompt,
d. By typing “mvn version” in the command prompt


Q35.When would an Issue Tracking Tool be used for CM?

a. Only for formal audits
b. When problems arise that cannot be classified as change requests |
c. Only for minor issues
d. Only for change requests


Q36.Generic risks require far more attention than product specific risks

Ans – False

Q37. What is a Blue/Green Deployment?

a. Ensuring secure coding techniques are used
b. A method of ensuring integrity is maintained
c. Deploying new resources
d. Two identical application stack^running simultaneously


Q38.What should be ensured during the SDLC tests and evaluation phases?

a. Confidentiality of information
b. Integrity of information
C. All of the above |
d. Availability of information


Q39.Which options are part of the adaptive type of maintenance?

a. Non-critical
b. Corrective
c. Fix errors in the design
d. New user interface

Ans:All of these

Q40.What are the characteristics of a person who has a proactive attitude?

a. Plans ahead and anticipates what the team will need to do
b. Communicates clearly and thoroughly
c. Accepts mistakes and moves on
d. Uses creativity to find solutions to potential problems

Ans:All of these

Q41.Are Accenture Delivery Methods Customizable

Ans – True

Q42.Concerning the SOLID Principles which of the below is odd.

a. Interface Segregation Principle
b Single Command Principle |
c. Leskov Subtituition Principle
d. Dependency Inversion Principle


43.Which of the following statements describe the Single Responsibility Principle of the SOLID object-oriented design approach?

Class definitions are longer and more modular

A class should only have one reason to change

Objects should have a singular purpose

Generally, a class wouldn’t make calls to external methods

Ans:B C

44.What is the purpose of packaging by machine dependencies?

To ensure that packages are self-contained and distinctly identified with a set of functionalities

To ensure that each implementation architecture is able to get the distinct package instance

To optimize installation of every configuration type which is currently present in the package

To decrease the size of the package before it is deployed.


45.Which command is used to create a new file in PowerShell?

a. Get-Item
b. New-Item
c. Remove-Item
d. Set-Item


46.Business analysts perform backlog management to record, track, and prioritize work items. Which statements about backlog management are accurate?

To achieve accurate backlog estimates, experience in prioritization and estimation is required

Backlog prioritization is a rigid process and once priorities have been assigned, they don’t change

Backlogs are useful when you need to respond to changing needs because they allow flexibility

Backlog items should only include functional requirements

Ans:all of these

47.Which automated task would most likely be performed by a ticketing system?

Running a script to correct a problem

Shutting down a problematic system

Notifying support personnel

Running a software installation


48.What software is needed for the project analysis?

Apache Ant

Apache Tomcat

Apache Maven


Ans:all of these

49.What is the purpose of the Change Control Board (CCB)?

To manage configuration activities

To appoint members to the CCB

To establish project schedules for CM activities

To review and authorize change requests to baselined work products


50.What is the purpose of establishing a project schedule for CM activities with the Project Manager?

To make updates to the CM Plan

To identify CIs to be managed under CM processes

To ensure that all project team members involved in CM receive training

To ensure that CM standards and procedures are followed


51.What is a key security activity during the acquisition or development phase of the software development life cycle?

Decommissioning of legacy software

Upgrading or updating software

Testing and evaluation of the technical and security features

Piloting of a risk assessment


52.Which is part of the development stage?

A kick-off plan is documented

The requirements document is developed

Modules are developed and tested as units

Functionality is discussed and planned


53.Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Groupthink?

Applying direct pressure to deviants

Illusions of vulnerability

Self-censorship by members

Belief in inherent group morality


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